I don't see the problem,
I used to but have overcame that hurdle
I don't "lean" on any particular scripture Sol,
I use the entire Word of God which is Christ Jesus.
I'll be blunt too Sol,
I would assume some others already know
I will say is that the Holy Spirit was Born and Jesus was Born.
I call it one of if not the most supreme of all of Christianity.
What makes this even more amazing is that it was gleaned from only four sentences! Admittedly when we have I problems it is indeed very difficult to see our way through ANY hurdle. This would certainly include the problem of being more concerned about how we might personally prefer to understand things than learning to simply pay attention to what the Holy Scriptures actually teach. This issue becomes all the more serious however when we become doggedly determined to influence others to adopt understandings as ridiculous as associating the birth of the holy spirit with the birth of Jesus simply because WE might be foolish enough to do so. Really?! We are expected to believe that God's holy spirit did not exist until the early part of the first century because Stranger said so?!! Obviously on this occasion you did not even attempt to cite one single scripture to support this utter nonsense. But then why exactly would you when this is all about what Stranger has to say on things?
Just in case you are unaware, at least most of the people here did not come to learn about your personal views and understandings of spiritual matters any more than they came to learn about mine or anyone else's. Rest assured what they are most interested in is what can genuinely be demonstrated as scriptural and what cannot. With that in mind the time is long overdue to address what basically seems to be the go-to response you always fall back on when you realize you are unable to defend yet another ridiculous assertion of yours with the scriptures.
Your question was loaded like a question straight from the WT and everyone's answer will be the same even underlined.
For some reason you seem to imagine that people don't see this for what it is, namely an open admission of defeat. Why else would you often pretend as if everyone here is suddenly unaware that I am very much at odds with the Watchtower organization?
In all fairness, the reason it is so easy for myself and others to continually refute your positions on things with the scriptures is because you have made the mistake that most of us did (unfortunately) when we finally came to realize that we were being misled by this organization. Rather than becoming determined to begin relying strictly on prayer and the holy writings themselves for genuine answers, we have most often chosen the approach essentially that since the figurative Pharisees are clearly not teaching the truth of God's word, this must mean that the figurative Sadducees were right all along to oppose them and separate themselves from them. In essence we come to conclude that the Sadducees (sadly, you see?) are the ones disseminating the truth of God's word. The need to avoid this mistake in a setting of complete national apostasy is precisely what is being illustrated for us in symbolic/prophetic dramas such as found at Daniel 1:8, not to mention more direct or straightforward commands such as found at Matthew 16:6 or 2 Corinthians 6:17. If there is anything unusual here it is the rather remarkable degree of pride and stubbornness involved in clinging tenaciously to false teachings even after people have thoroughly demonstrated them to be unscriptural. This brings me to yet another unscriptural position of yours:
Proselytiser of Jah wrote: ↑5 days ago I agree he had to be obedient, but this tells me he isn't equal.
Well then think about this one for at least a few moments instead of immediately forming a rebuttal and opening up gates that have no guards.
Have you crossed over or are you still hearing parables?
Stranger, (Jn 16:27 KJV)
First of all, should it not be recognized as a kind of big red flag from the word –go when someone regularly feels the need to refer to things like You-Tube videos as their point of authority or otherwise to support the way they wish to understand the holy writings? In my case I strongly recommend you substitute this particular video you promote with scriptural prophesies such as found at Matthew 24:45 and 25:34-40. This is because even while Jesus and John the Baptist (the "two witnesses" involved in the FIFTH foretold "birth of the barren woman") were in the midst of assisting Jehovah with once again CREATING the conditions in which genuine theocratic shepherds could …"speak plainly about the father" rather than with things like parables, "typical representations," "prophetic dramas," "illustrations," "likenesses" or "figures of speech," they were foretelling times in which their own anointed "brothers" would find THEMSELVES in desperate need of spiritual food and clothing. (He 8:5) (Jer 15:9) (Joh 16:25) (Mt 13:10, 11) (Ho 12:10) What is equally important for us to understand however is the precise settings or time frames in which this situation would exist. But why is that and what exactly is this setting or time frame in question?
The answer to this is found in accounts like 2 Thessalonians 2:1-3:
"However brothers, respecting the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we request of you not to be quickly shaken from your reason nor be excited either through an inspired expression or through a verbal message or through a letter as though from us to the effect that the day of Jehovah is near.
Let no one seduce you in any manner, because it WILL NOT COME unless the APOSTASY COMES FIRST and the man of lawlessness gets revealed, the son of destruction."
Are we seeing the point here? Just as really the most basic logic alone would dictate, there is of course never any NEED for a "coming of the kingdom" or "holy nation" and it's commensurate true worship if an "apostasy" on the part of genuine theocratic shepherds has not REMOVED these things from the earth in the first place! Moreover if even the ONE TRUE nation and its corresponding religious teachings has suffered the "removal" and subsequent "replacement" mentioned in accounts like Daniel 11:31 DUE to this "apostasy," then what would that imply with regard to all the various teachings and practices of OTHER religious groups that were NEVER truly a part of it? (Da 11:30-32)
In other words, unless we are to take the position that we currently ARE NOT anticipating another foretold "coming of the kingdom," we ourselves have just confirmed that we are right back in the situation described in accounts like Hosea 12:10. Yes the fact is for thousands of years now Jehovah has established a very consistent pattern not only of initiating another birth of his kingdom with a ministry performed exclusively towards the anointed ones, but one that has ALWAYS been marked with "making likenesses" or illustrating things with parables.
Did we fail to observe how the teachings of Jehovah's appointed earthly shepherds suddenly became much more straightforward immediately after yet another kingdom covenant was renewed and inaugurated in 33 CE? If so, then we would do well to carefully compare the teachings of John the Baptist and Jesus in the Gospel accounts with those of the Apostles all the way up until Revelation. Why did things suddenly become much more symbolic and difficult to understand in Revelation? This is for precisely the reason that John states in accounts like 1 John 2:18 and Revelation 17:10; namely because mankind was once again dealing with a spiritual "FALL" of Jehovah's nation which ALWAYS begins transforming or reducing what WERE ..."many members of the body of the CHRIST" into what are now many …"members of a HARLOT," or even (as the Apostle John words it) "many ANTICHRISTS." (1 Cor 6:15 12:12) (Ro 12:4, 5) (1 Joh 2:18) (Re 18:2)
Whether we realize it or not the humble "repentance" being addressed in accounts like Matthew 3:1, 2 and 4:17 is all about who if ANY among the anointed ones in these settings are willing to accept responsibility for this rather sobering reality. (Mt 22:14) Nevertheless the point here that is being made clear in accounts like Hosea 12:10 (penned nearly three millenniums ago) is that Jehovah has been utilizing this method of communicating to anointed "virgins" and "widows" of a broken holy marriage covenant all along. (Mt 25:1, 2) (La 1:1, 4) Moreover just as the prophet Malachi pointed out, he is not going to suddenly "change" his methods merely because ones like Stranger might like him to or even insist he already has based on some particular You-Tube video he watched. (Mal 3:6) (Matt 25:1, 2) It is beginning to appear that I might need to completely disengage with you in scriptural discussions as things are just getting much too ridiculous here. With all due love and respect I genuinely fear I may no longer even be able to dignify many of your statements with an answer. (2 Ti 2:23)