In view of the fact that (just as is the case also in John 10:16) a kind of reunification is once again being considered here in this prophecy of Zechariah, I was wondering if you might have some thoughts to share on the setting or context that these words are addressing. Was there perhaps a key change in circumstances that would suddenly allow for a reunion of what is represented here by "ten men out of all languages of the nations" with what in turn is represented by the "Jews"? If so what exactly was it that changed, and would this be reflected also in the case of the spiritual nation Jesus is speaking of at John 10:16?Prophecy
23 Thus saith Jehovah of hosts: In those days shall ten men take hold, out of all languages of the nations, shall even take hold of the skirt of him that is a Jew, saying, We will go with you; for we have heard [that] God is with you.
With that said, I was curious if you found it interesting or noteworthy that once again we find this "all the nations" entity being associated with the number ten, ("ten tribes"? or otherwise what they were used to represent or illustrate/foreshadow in the case of true Christianity?) just as is the case throughout both the Hebrew and Greek scriptures.
But wait a minute! Isn't the line or division between a gentile and a Samaritan already beginning to appear rather blurry? Might this begin to seem EVEN MORE confusing when we bear in mind that the term Samaritan was simply another way of saying—Israelite? But if all this is not already confusing enough, don't most people on this earth seem to imagine that an Israelite and a Jew is the same thing? And if a gentile is the same thing as an Israelite, wouldn't this mean it is also the same as a Jew? In fact an Israelite was never referred to as a Samaritan until a division occurred that separated the southern two tribal areas from the northern ten tribes. And for that matter the Judeans were always referred to as Israelites before this separation occurred. So what really is the difference then between a gentile and a Samaritan, or even a Samaritan and an Israelite? And if a Jew was simply an Israelite before this separation, what really is the difference between a Jew and an Israelite?
Of course we already know at least some of the answers to questions like this. But can we at least begin to better appreciate that we need to start ignoring or tuning out all the relentless chatter and rhetoric and actually start paying closer attention to the scriptures? What really are the distinctions between all these entities even in the case of FLESHLY Israel, and how might a key change in circumstances suddenly impact or affect these distinctions or divisions? What exactly IS this key change, and how exactly would it either divide or reunite these three entities?
Is this account speaking of the Jews serving as a "light for the gentiles," or is it the Israelites that would serve as this light? Or would this perhaps apply to both Jews and Israelites? How would we use the scriptures to support our answer to this question regardless of what it might be? Wouldn't it be important for us to know?Fulfillment
47 For so has the Lord commanded us, saying, 'I have set you as a light for the Gentiles, That you should bring salvation to the uttermost parts of the earth.'"
48 As the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of God. As many as were appointed to eternal life believed.
We realize of course that the spiritual shepherds in the first century who were writing and speaking these words commonly identified themselves specifically as spiritual Jews. So would this perhaps mean that these "unbelieving or unlearned" ones they are speaking of here would qualify as gentiles or even Samaritans/Israelites? Now if these same people BEGIN to learn and believe, and by extension "become one in Christ" as you say, would this now qualify them as spiritual Samaritans, spiritual Israelites, or spiritual Jews? Which one would it be if any, and how would you establish your position scripturally. Once again, wouldn't this be rather critical for us to understand, and particularly if we are to actually begin grasping scriptures like Zechariah 8:23 or John 10:16?1 Cor 14:24,25
4 But if all prophesy, and there come in one unbelieving or unlearned, he is reproved by all, he is judged by all;
25 the secrets of his heart are made manifest; and so he will fall down on his face and worship God, declaring that God is among you indeed
Ephesians 2:11-15 basically explains them being one in Christ
I hope you understand David that I'm not expecting or demanding an answer from you on all these questions. For the moment all I'm trying to do is help people appreciate that scriptural matters like this suddenly appear rather different when we actually and finally begin to pay heed to scriptures like Romans 12:1 and Acts 17:11. We are CONSTANTLY being bombarded with false programming that is designed to prevent us from truly thinking these things through. If we can at least begin to humbly acknowledge that we DO NOT understand these things, then we might actually begin tuning out the constant chatter and finally start relying on things like prayer and the scriptures themselves.
So please patiently bear with me here and allow me to pose these questions once again to you or any that would like to share in this discussion; and once again let's endeavor to remain focused primarily for now on ancient FLESHLY Israel in an effort to keep things more simple and concise:
What exactly do the scriptures reveal as to the distinction or difference between a Jew and an Israelite, and what exactly was it that divided them? What is the difference if any between an Israelite and a Samaritan? What was the difference if any between a Samaritan and a gentile?
If we can pinpoint the specific identity of these three entities as well as what it was that created the divide between them, would this not in turn help us to identify what would reunite them, and by extension come to a better understanding of accounts like John 10:16 or even Zechariah 8:23?