When Solomon died (931 BC?) Rehoboam became King but was soon kicked to the curb and was replaced with de facto king Jeroboam.
Quite true; but of course this rejection of the authority of Rehoboam only applied in the case of the northern ten tribes. What now became known as a ten tribe kingdom of Israel (as opposed to a twelve tribe) immediately began to subject themselves to the whims and will of a man that THEY now chose to recognize as their king, (bear in mind he was never inaugurated or anointed as king by one of Jehovah's prophets as had always been done up until that time) and this was of course Jeroboam just as you state. Also, in view of things like the fact that he immediately began to introduce idolatrous false worship and non Levitical priests to these ten tribal areas, as well as the fact that all the FORMER priests now made an exit and journeyed south to Judea might prompt us to consider the following questions:
Did JEHOVAH actually recognize this new kingship, or otherwise any genuine/legitimate theocratic power and authority as continuing to exist among this new version of Israel; and might this have something to do with it not only now being represented suddenly in the feminine gender, but also as a kind of prostitute? Moreover how might the scriptural answers to these questions impact our understanding of accounts like John 10:16? Would you or anyone perhaps recall any scriptures that might address these questions?
Particularly in view of how Jehovah himself identified the place where Jesus was impaled as "Sodom and EGYPT" ("in a spiritual sense") in this same prophetic time frame that the words of John 10:16 were uttered, doesn't that make this "intentional Egyptian characterization" all the more interesting and significant? (Re 11:8) Rest assured it is no mere coincidence. Moreover despite the fact that this alarming situation was in the very process of being remedied yet again at the time that Jesus spoke these words of John 10:16, nonetheless it is also no coincidence that the VERY SAME division and harlot-like spiritual condition existed in connection with a much OLDER expression of Judea and Samaria that we find portrayed there in Ezekiel 23. But here is where things become even MORE interesting:From what I understand is that Jeroboam's wife (Ano), was an Egyptian princess ( "intentionally not portrayed as a real individual in her own right", but that her characterization should be viewed as "the effective use of an anonymous character to fill an important literary function" ) {AB} (1Ki 12:27), (1Ki 11:26)
While this DIVISION among Israel is associated with a "mother" or "woman" that gives birth to a kind of "daughter" or even "daughters," (rather promiscuous ones in fact which are characterized with things like "Sodom" and "Egypt"), its REUNIFICATION is ALSO associated with a birth of a woman. However while the "woman" in these prophetic time frames is ALSO characterized with concepts like Egypt, there are at least two things that are now very different with her birth. (Mt 2:15)
Once again what we find here in Matthew 2:15 is this very same characterization of spiritual uncleanness that is found also in accounts like Revelation 11:8 or Ezekiel 23. While virtually everyone seems to have been well programmed to think in terms of Jesus being impaled in ancient Judea just outside Jerusalem, the scriptures once again make it clear that we should be thinking in terms of both his death AND his re-birth (or resurrection) as originating from "EGYPT," or otherwise something associated with great spiritual uncleanness. (Like a "great harlot," or a "disgusting thing that causes desolation" that is now "standing in a holy place" like what WAS recognized by Jehovah as "Judea just outside Jerusalem"?) (Re 17:4) (Mt 24:15, 16) However we might notice that this SUBSEQUENT birth of this "Egyptian"-like woman that is always associated with the REUNIFICATION of Jehovah's "sheep" is now also very different in at least two additional ways.
You see just as was demonstrated for us also in the first century with the first of the foretold births or "comings" of the SPIRITUAL manifestation of Jehovah's nation or kingdom, there is always a very significant and profound spiritual CLEANSING involved with this "birth of the barren woman" which is referred to with scriptural terms such as a "baptism of holy spirit and fire." (Mt 3:11) Compare (Mal 3:2-4) (1 Sa 2:5) (Jer 15:9) This spiritual cleansing results in a birth NOT of promiscuous "Egyptian"-like "DAUGHTERS," but rather of what is now identified as a "SON" or even "SONS." (Mt 2:15) (Isa 66:7, 8) (Re 12:5) (Da 7:13, 14) However ANOTHER thing that is rather different about the prophetic time frame of these SUBSEQUENT births is that great "WOE" now comes against this "pregnant woman" or otherwise what is now also recognized as "suckling" and caring for this newborn male infant." (Mt 24:19-22)
We of course would tend to think very well of anyone involved in the caring and nurturing of what is represented here by this particular "baby." So it might seem rather confusing to us that Jehovah has great "woe" in mind even for them in at least some sense. Could there perhaps be facets of this figurative "pregnant woman" that we are failing to take into account? Would you or anyone like to share some thoughts on this that might clear up any confusion? Also, how might all this tie in with the reunification of Jehovah's nation that is always commensurate with these secondary births, or otherwise what is spoken of also in John 10:16?
Agape love;
Sol
